Pete Howlett
Well-known member
So here is a technical question or more correct, conundrum.
It is a common claim that the zero fret configuration, apart from making for a great action also provides more accurate intonation. Is this because the point of string contact is in the centre of the slot and not the front edge as on a nut only configuration? If this is the case, then shouldn't the position of a nut only set-up be the first fret distance + half the fret slot width?
This makes sense doesn't it?
Answers below please
It is a common claim that the zero fret configuration, apart from making for a great action also provides more accurate intonation. Is this because the point of string contact is in the centre of the slot and not the front edge as on a nut only configuration? If this is the case, then shouldn't the position of a nut only set-up be the first fret distance + half the fret slot width?
This makes sense doesn't it?
Answers below please